I bought first house owner occupier in 2005 and then built another house to occupy in 2010, moved out of first house to second house with no change to mortgages. There is zero obligation to renegotiate a new mortgage, there is no crime, there is no fraud.
Yeah, it’s the same here. In fact, it’s a lot like what’s described at that link Maybe sit this one out
Ok, but we’re talking about two primary residence mortgages taken out in the same year, which both appear to have a clause requiring her to "occupy the property as borrower's principal residence for at least one year after the date of occupancy”, your situation is not universal.