There's nothing stopping you from using the term "Early Middle Ages" more broadly than "the Dark Ages" (which in any event I think should be focused on the late/former Western Roman Empire).
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But that's exactly the problem - by the time we've retreated to applying the term to narrower and narrower temporal and geographic regions, why bother preferencing the terminology at all? What makes Germany in the 600s more important than the advanced legalism of Visigothic Spain?
aug 28, 2025, 12:16 pm • 1 0 • view