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Brian Kemper @bwkemper.bsky.social

No, they did not under the Brandenburg standard, which is a very high standard that requires that it was the intent of the speaker to incite imminent (i.e. immediate) harm and that speech was likely to cause such imminent harm. SCOTUS has interpreted that very narrowly over the years.

aug 26, 2025, 8:32 pm • 0 0

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