In international law occupied people have the right resist In international law the occupying power has no right of self defence from the occupied There is no equivalence between these two events
In international law occupied people have the right resist In international law the occupying power has no right of self defence from the occupied There is no equivalence between these two events
As far as I know in any war deliberately targeting civilians is wrong. In my opinion in the Israel/Palestine situation the question should never be “who of the two populations has the right to erase the other” but “how will both manage to co-exist in peace”.