from that point to the alternative now, we’ll assume is 40% suffering. (Yes, that also assumes no unintended negative side effects). Now, if the two timelines’ populations are roughly equal, then yes, I’ve increased the absolute number of suffering people by 80%.
But the percentage of total people suffering across the two timelines is now 45%. That’s a net decrease in total relative suffering.
I understand your argument but think comparing calendar year X in each timeline is a bad metric of “relative” suffering, and I doubt we’ll see eye to eye here
May I ask why you think it’s a bad metric?