And apologies if I've forgotten something obvious because I haven't read it for AGES but, based on the text alone, what's Scottish about The Strange Case of Dr Jeckyl and Mr Hyde? It's in English and it's set in London. And Wikipedia tells me it was written in Bournemouth.
What’s “English” about Hamlet? It’s set in Denmark. But Jekyll & Hyde is an excellent example: it’s a text that could only have been written by someone from Edinburgh. If Stevenson had been brought up in, say, Bath, by Anglicans, he might have been a great writer but could never have written J&H
I’d say, too, that it’s possible for a literary work, & for a writer, to be *more than one thing*. Stevenson is, very much, a Scottish writer. His works are all works of Scottish literature. But some are works of English literature, too, & American literature, & Samoan literature. It’s not exclusive
Re Hamlet, I think the equivalent analogy would be an English writer writing a play in Danish set in Denmark and then wondering why it's considered Danish literature. You're right about RLS of course. True of all writers. Only they can produce their work, no one else 🙂