let’s say you’re an androgen insensitive individual. you don’t produce gametes (iirc typically infertile) but while you have testicles your body looks externally female since your cells don’t respond to testosterone. what is this individual’s sex?
Replies
This is a complex medical condition, but if you are completely androgen insensitive then you body will develop as female - you are female.
aug 26, 2025, 11:53 am • 0 0 • view
Why? That would not follow from your claims about what sex means
aug 26, 2025, 11:54 am • 0 0 • view
Because when we talk about having a male or female **body** then it depends on how your body developed, doesn't it? Male of female phenotype.
aug 26, 2025, 11:56 am • 0 0 • view
You are one of those quacks that doesn't think intersex people exist, aren't you
aug 26, 2025, 11:59 am • 1 0 • view
Oh there are people with conditions that some call "intersex". I fully agree. But they are still male or female. There are also quiet a lot of people on the Internet who pretend to be intersex - it is a fashionable identity.
aug 26, 2025, 12:00 pm • 0 0 • view
For someone so tangled up in a lot of failed reading comprehension you sure seem confident you know everything. I'm a software engineer and even I can tell the claims you are making are a full misunderstanding of the paper you linked and the thread & replies. You are way over your skis bub.
aug 26, 2025, 12:09 pm • 0 0 • view
Please be specific about what I have misunderstood. Explain it to me or I can assume you are talking bullshit.
aug 26, 2025, 12:11 pm • 0 0 • view
Multiple people already have
aug 26, 2025, 12:11 pm • 1 0 • view
He says like multiple people haven’t repeatedly explained what he has misunderstood and covered his ears and said “nonono”
aug 26, 2025, 12:12 pm • 1 0 • view
No one has explained. They have made incorrect assertions without any evidence from the papers that I am wrong. Quote the papers - explain why I am wrong that only two discrete sexes have evolved.
aug 26, 2025, 12:17 pm • 0 0 • view
So you agree that it’s not only gametes! Congrats on coming around to the scientific truth
aug 26, 2025, 11:58 am • 1 0 • view
Male and female are defined with respect to a gamete type. There are two developmental pathways for your body - one is associated with eggs- the female body type; the other is associated with sperm- the male body type. This is not hard. But I appreciate how hard you are working not to understand.
aug 26, 2025, 11:59 am • 0 0 • view
But you just defined an androgen insensitive person as female for reasons other than gamete type. Such people do not generally produce large gametes.
aug 26, 2025, 12:04 pm • 0 0 • view
No their body is the type associated with eggs -even though they cannot produce eggs.
aug 26, 2025, 12:08 pm • 0 0 • view
…so you agree it’s not about gametes, it’s about having a handful of traits associated with a dimorphic sex binary
aug 26, 2025, 12:11 pm • 2 0 • view
It is about having a phenotype associated with a gamete type. That is what we mean when we say an organism has a sex. Do you want me to repeat that again?
aug 26, 2025, 12:13 pm • 0 0 • view
we’re so close! yes we’re on the same page now. phenotypes are not strict binaries. you can be naturally born and develop traits associated with both phenotypes. bimodal, not a strict binary. what sex are you if you have both a penis and a vagina?
aug 26, 2025, 12:17 pm • 1 0 • view
Exactly! A phenotype is an observable trait or characteristic of an organism, resulting from the expression of its genetic makeup (genotype) and influenced by environmental factors. They are female because they have a checklist of observable traits that add up to “female”, despite having testies
aug 26, 2025, 12:19 pm • 3 0 • view